Acts
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Do you also have a supporting Scripture that the Gift of Tongues is a 'Heavenly language known only to God'? The Acts 2:4 account of Pentecost Day seems to indicate that the Tongues spoken was not Heavenly but Earthly & Paul's teaching on this in 1 Cor 14 was specifically to show that Tongues was an unknown (unlearned) language to the speaker but may be known to another present or to be used when one gifted with its Interpretation was present. Without an interpretation, the (unlearned) Tongue was not to be used however it could be used in prayer to God only, where "my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful" (v 14). This seems to me that apart from its use in prayer, the Tongue should only be used when someone who understands/interprets it is present.
I would be interested to learn what Scripture you know that can support what you've said.
I differ from you somewhat on your explanation of Acts 2:38. To my understanding you are receiving the Holy Spirit upon the new birth. The birth by water in John 3, is the fleshly birth.( uh oh my water just broke) and then born of the Spirit is the second birth. I believe verse 6 says that which is born of flesh is flesh and that which is born of the spirit is spirit. That is an explanation by Jesus on the new birth. I do believe that you have to be born again to enter the kingdom of Heaven. But also the water baptism is an outward expression of an inward change. Water baptism has nothing to do with salvation. No where in the gospels does it speak of any baptism that seals your salvation. The Word does say in Acts 4:12 There is salvation in no other, there is no other name under heaven given among men whereby we must be saved. Salvation is the gift of God and the shedding of Jesus blood for the remission of our sins. Christ and Christ alone.
and then PAUL really gets the ball rolling and spreads the gospel to the Gentiles:
( Eph. 3:8 Unto ME, who am less than the least of all saints, IS THIS GRACE GIVEN, THAT *I* SHOULD PREACH AMONG the GENTILES the unsearchable riches of Christ)
I just wanted to share my thoughts on water baptism and go no further, but I am so with you about the Comforter coming! and Jesus' disciples being beyond JOY when He arrived!!!
I guess though, I have to say - I believe, in this dispensation of GRACE - that when we are saved - at that moment -
we become "In Christ" -
( 2 Corinthians 5:17
Therefore IF ANY MAN BE IN CHRIST, HE IS A NEW CREATURE: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new)
At the moment we are saved we are IN CHRIST - in other words, we are IMMERSED in HIM - and, as we all know, baptism is about being immersed (Some immerse in water - Jesus immerses/baptized us IN HIM - meaning we are IMMERSED/BAPTIZED at that moment in HIS HOLY SPIRIT -as opposed to His physical body)
So, in a nutshell, I believe we are 'baptized in the Holy Spirit' the moment we are saved - I know for myself, I never needed to speak in tongues to get set on FIRE
I believe 'Tongues' are actual earthly languages - ( Acts 2:6 -because that every man heard them speak in his own lang)
I Cor 13:8-10
whether there be tongues, they shall cease... but when that which is PERFECT (God's Word =The Bible) is come, then that which is in part shall be done away. (shortening verses because of space)
The Bible IS COME
And as much as I would agree with you on the 'greater' importance to be baptized with the Holy Spirit (& after all this is the hallmark of the believer, & that which seals & secures him/her eternally), what then do you make of the NT Scriptures that still demonstrate water baptism? Of course, we have Jesus' Own Command to His disciples in Mt 28:19,20 (& I give a few Scriptures relating only to water baptism); Acts 2:38-41; 8:38; 16:33; 19:1-6; 1 Cor 13:13-16. And these were not just Jews only but Gentiles as well. And in any case, once a Jew turns to Christ, Christian baptism is still necessary to demonstrate the act of conversion.
How do you interpret these portions?
The only occasion that I could anticipate that a Christian would not need to be baptized in water would be where there was no one (e.g. an evangelist or personal witness) to share the Gospel with the unbeliever, & that enquiring soul, from the reading of the Word & moving of the Spirit, receives spiritual re-birth. A good example of this are the Apostles, (except Saul who was led to the Lord by Ananias ( Acts 9:1-18)). We never see any testimony or reference by the apostles to their water baptism. Why not? Because they were baptized with the Spirit at Pentecost & were never led to salvation. So, it seems that the one that leads a soul to salvation should ensure (i.e. obeying the command) that water baptism takes place forthwith as a testimony of the great transaction. Sadly, our Churches pay little regard to this clearly defined order & folk are baptized according to their wishes & even decades down the road. There seems little sense to me in doing it this way & may just be a form of 'works' in case "I don't make it to Heaven".
That being said we split hairs on some scripture and I don't think it was in God's will to build a whole religious system on baptism. It is an external command that we be baptized unto his death and symbolic to the world we are Christians...Christ followers. We are not saved by baptism but by the blood of the Lord Jesus Christ.
When a person receives Christ, they receive His Spirit. If we are trusting God's promise to give us His Spirit when we call out to Him to save us, why would we need evidence? Wouldn't seeking for evidence be the same as not trusting God to fulfill His promise to give us His Spirit? If we require evidence of our salvation, then how can we say we have faith? God's promise in Romans 10:13 is that all who call upon Him shall be saved. That is His promise. He gives us His Spirit. Without His Spirit, there is no salvation, and we are given that in Romans 8:9. You mentioned Acts 2:38 which is a great verse to show that those who repent are promised God's Spirit. That is all we are promised to receive. Many people today are being deceived by the teachings on "tongues" which is causing them to doubt their salvation because they are being told that tongues is the evidence of their salvation. There are three point-blank facts about speaking in tongues that the bible gives us.
Number one: It is a known language. Not necessarily known to the person speaking, but it is a human language.
Number two: It is a sign.
Number three: It is to unbelievers, not believers.
Salvation message in a nutshell is Acts 2:38. Someone once told me that the disciples got it wrong when they baptised in the Name of the Lord Jesus Christ. How sad. Sad to are those who refuse baptism and call it a 'work'. 1 Peter 3:21 tells us that... baptism doth now also save us....
Lots of things to cover but for now my last point is using Websters, Collins etc dictionaries cannot be used for Biblical understanding. You need a Strong's concordance to give you the correct meanings.
I pray that you all blessed in the Name of the Lord Jesus Christ, as you study His precious Word.
Just stand on the scriptures, God will take care of the rest, He will honour Your stand on His Word.
Acts 2:38 KJV
[38] Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
Find someone who will baptise you in the name of the Jesus Christ, if you haven't already.
Then you will not be tossed about by every ones opinions.
John 16:13 KJV
[13] Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come.
He will guide you into all truth.
1 John 2:27 KJV
[27] But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him.
ye need not that any man teach you
There you go Willie, that's God's Word.
Stand on it, He promised it. Praise the Lord.
Faith leads to obedience.
John 15:7 KJV
[7] If ye abide in me, and my words abide in you, ye shall ask what ye will, and it shall be done unto you.
You want Him to settle this doubt, ask Him and believe Him when He said - it shall be done unto you.
Matthew 24:35 KJV
[35] Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.
God bless you
If you are nervous about who the Holy Spirit is... He already knows you are. He'll wait till you search the scriptures to be settled in your mind, that He is the 3rd person of the Godhead; He is the Spirit of Christ Jesus. Jesus went to the Cross partly so we all who believe on Jesus can receive the Holy Spirit without fears. Knowledge is strength.
If your Bible has a dictionary OR a concordance; look up all those scriptures.
When you ARE SURE you want the Holy Spirit ?? Then hold up your hands and say this out loud: " Holy Spirit I trust you and I want everything that you want me to have". I receive it now by faith. Thank you Jesus!!
Amen! Praise God! So Be It! Hallelujah!
The only gift that is promised to those who receive Christ is the gift of the Holy Spirit. He gives us His Spirit. No other gift is promised to us. You had nothing to be embarrassed about. There are some who teach that speaking in tongues is evidence that you have the Holy Spirit. Some will also say that your inability to speak in tongues is because of your "lack of faith." There's a theological term for that. It's called Baloney! There is no such thing as a person who has been born of God's Spirit lacking faith. I have never spoken in tongues but I have no doubt that God's Spirit is working in my life. The tongues that are being taught in the church today are not the tongues of the bible. As far as getting re-baptized (Water), there is nothing saying you can't do that. Water baptism is an outward testimony of an inward change. In other words, you are giving a public testimony that you have received Christ and you are identifying yourself with His death, burial, and resurrection. Water baptism is a physical human expression. Jesus baptizes people with His Spirit. That is the baptism that saves you!
1 Peter 1:20, "Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you".
Acts 2:23, "Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain".
Isa 37:26, "Have you not heard? Long ago I ordained it; in days of old I planned it. Now I have brought it to pass, that you should crush fortified cities into piles of rubble."
Eph 1:3-5, "Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us in Christ with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly realms. 4For He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world to be holy and blameless in His presence. In love 5He predestined us for adoption as His sons through Jesus Christ, according to the good pleasure of His will".
2 Timothy 1:9, "He has saved us and called us with a holy calling, not because of our own works, but by His own purpose and by the grace He granted us in Christ Jesus before time eternal."
1 Peter 1:20, "Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you".
God Planned and Prepared a Perfect Kingdom for us, before the Foundation of the World. And if He prepared perfection for us, what does it mean but that we never had it. Adam and Eve didn't have it and neither do we. Perfection was not coming until after Christ. It didn't come before Him. Heb 11:40, "God having provided some better thing for us, that they without us should not be made perfect." Heb 5:9, "And having been made perfect, He became the source of eternal salvation."
Only Christ was made Perfect. Adam and Eve were not.
Your comparison between Adam and God in the Flesh (Jesus) is questionable. Christ came with a Pre-Determined Purpose. Christ is God. Christ was Mature and fully prepared. His response to the devil was, "You shall not tempt the Lord your God." James 1:13, "God is not tempted by evil" and in Acts 2:24, "death had no power to hold him". Jesus was a man. But He was God in the body of a man. Death entered the world through Adam, because Adam was weak. But life came through Jesus, the Tree of Life, the resurrection and the life.
I don't agree with your assumption that God wanted to shield Adam and Eve from Knowledge of Good and Evil, to keep them innocent. Is there a Biblical foundation for that? Additionally, you imply corruption wasn't in existence in the Garden. But didn't God send the most corrupt thing in His creation to the Garden? There were 3 things in the Garden, Man, TKGE, TL. Why was the TKGE there?
I won't debate that God created a flawed universe. He didn't. It deteriorated on its own. But think about what you said, 'I would say it was a part of His Perfect Knowledge & His Whole Plan into Eternity allowed for it."
Testament salvation thru faith & obeying the gospel. How are you doing sis Irene?
That was me in above name Mark B. I just realized that misspelled letter) Be strong in Christ.
So with all that agreement with you (as above), where then is my problem? I think it is essentially in the days of Creation & in the workings of Satan. To restate: Adam & Eve were not created in corruption, rather they were created perfect, had a free will but chose wrongly. Was this in God's Plan? No. Was this in God's Knowledge? Yes. Did their sinning catch God by surprise? No. Did he plan for Satan to be there & entice them? No. Did God know that Satan would do this & succeed? Yes. Did God's future Plan to deal with Satan & corrupted man part of His Plan? Yes. So, what I'm saying here is that God doesn't cause or Plan for people to sin. Why? simply that a Holy God cannot have a part in someone's sin; to sin is the choice of the sinner, not of God. Yet God knew they would sin. Did God cause Satan to test Job's faith in God? No, it was Satan who prompted the test with a caveat from God. Did He cause Satan & the angels who followed him to sin? No, they chose to do so.
So I've given some examples of where we could differ; you could probably give more to learn my response. So, I don't believe He causes anyone to sin because it is in 'His Plan' to do so. Each one is responsible for their own choices. But God knew who would sin, both human & angel alike, & then had His Plan ready for whatever He deemed correct. So, am I saying that a Plan was created after the act? No, God already knows what will happen but not the instigator of a sinful act just to fulfil His Plan. So, I think it is on this point that we differ.
Some ascribe it to God's intuition or omniscience. But there are philosophical, theological and historical issues with it. What God knows will be a historical fact or event, He can't change. Why? Because if God knows something, He knows it to be fact. If God 'knows' Christ is going to die on the Cross and something, God Himself changes it, then He was mistaken. What we can say He knew is that Christ was going to be crucified, but He changed it to something else.
Instead, God tells us in Isa 44-48 that He can do things at that moment. So, God knows things about what is going to happen and He tells us about them, not because He is somehow intuitively aware of the Future, but because He planned it that way. That is how He wanted it to happen. Rom 8, Isa 46:10-13.
God doesn't just know beforehand what is going to happen, He makes it happen that way. When God said Esau would serve Jacob, He also said that's the way He intended it. That was His doing, not a natural consequence of events He just happened to be aware of beforehand. The argument is that limiting God to 'Foreknowledge' about the Future, limits Him. Why? Because He could only do what He knows He is going to do, not what He wants to do.
Acts 4:28, They did what your power and will had decided beforehand should happen.
That said, the fact that God is Omniscient cannot be denied or diminished. But to argue that 1,000 years is like a day, to support Omniscience, takes the verses out of context Ps 90:4. Reference is to speed of time.
Acts 3:19 REPENT Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your SINS sins may be blotted out, (change your mind on SIN)
Acts 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, REPENT Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of SINS sins,
Acts 8:22 REPENT Repent therefore of this thy WICKEDNESS wickedness,
2 Corinthians 12:21 And lest, when I come again, my God will humble me among you, and that I shall bewail many which have sinned already, and have not REPENT repented of the uncleanness and fornication and lasciviousness which they have committed. ( repent uncleanness and fornication and lasciviousness )
Revelation 2:21 And I gave her space to REPENT repent of her FORNICATION fornication; and she repented not.
(IS FORNICATION A SIN OR A CHANGE OF MIND?)
Revelation 2:22 Behold, I will cast her into a bed, and them that commit ADULTERY adultery with her into great tribulation, except they REPENT repent of their DEEDS deeds.
Revelation 9:21 Neither REPENTED repented they of their MURDERS murders, nor of their SORCERIES sorceries, nor of their FORNICATION fornication, nor of their THEFTS thefts.
A. Was Christ in God's initial Plan of creation? Titus 1:2, 2 Tim 1:9, Rom 8:17f, Eph 1:4, 3:10-11, Isa 44-48
B. Did God create man so Christ could come to save him from sin's penalty? Heb 10:5, Gal 3:16, Rom 11:36
C. Why create man? Did God of necessity have to create man? Heb 2, Gal 3:16
D. Does God support evil to accomplish His Plan? Rom 9:22-24
E. And what about Satan? Did God put him in the Garden to tempt man? Genesis 2, Job 1:12, Matt 4:1, Lk 4:2
To A: I don't think anyone can argue that Christ was not in the initial Plan of creation, given Jesus created all things. Titus 1:2 and 2 Tim 1:9 are unequivocal. The Plan of Redemption was drawn up before anything was created. We can legitimately conclude from that, that the coming of Christ in a human body ( Heb 10:5), was intentional. Redemption was not offered in reaction to the Fall. Jesus prayed to the Father to, "glorify Me in Your presence with the glory I had with You before the world existed". 1 John 5:20, John 1:18.
If all things were created for the sake of Jesus ( Col 1:16), doesn't it seem obvious that Jesus was part of the Plan of Creation? There is no indication in Scripture that Jesus was an afterthought? In these verses, we are told that Christ's incarnation was in the original blueprints, before mankind was created. Acts 2:23 Eph 1:4.
What did Jesus mean when He stated in John 8:58, "Before Abraham existed, I Am"? Keep in mind that it is Jesus speaking. Was He simply saying He is God? Or was He saying He as Savior existed before creation? That is, Christ existed. Not Jehovah existed. Christ existed and He is God. John 1 attests to that. In John 17:24 Jesus says God loved Him before creation. Loved who? God loved God? No. God loved Jesus, the Savior.
Rev 13:8, 17:8 also reveal that prior to the Fall, the names of the saved were written in the Book of Life. What's up with that? Jesus came before the Fall.
In such situations, I wish I could altogether remove the word, 'tongue', & just insert 'unknown or unlearned language' as it clearly implies in Scripture, i.e. a language in existence on Earth, but which has not been learned by the utterer. When this gift came upon men showing the arrival & indwelling of the Holy Spirit in people, they always spoke in a language that they had not learned but it was a language that was known by someone else. Thus, the 'tongue' served absolutely no purpose unless it was for the benefit of another (e.g. as evidence to the unsaved & to hear God's message to them, or God's Word to believers, if only it came with interpretation).
And to those dear, well meaning believers so 'gifted', also suggested to me, a non-gifted 'tongue' believer, that if no 'tongue' came out of me, then I should just 'start babbling something to start the process going'! Of course, an extreme, perverted understanding of the Gift, but it showed to me, as a new Christian, the lengths they would go to give such importance to this least of all gifts. The only occasion of when this 'gift' is used other than what I've indicated here, is when there is none to interpret it, that it is used not publicly, but in his/her prayer to God & be edified through it ( 1 Cor 14:28).
1 Corinthians 12:29 - Are all apostles? are all prophets? are all teachers? are all workers of miracles?
1 Cor 12:30 - Have all the gifts of healing? do all speak with tongues? do all interpret?
1 Cor 12:31 - But covet earnestly the best gifts: and yet shew I unto you a more excellent way.
1 Corinthians 14:5 I would that ye all spake with tongues, but rather that ye prophesied: for greater is he that prophesieth than he that speaketh with tongues. for greater is he that prophesieth than he that speaketh with tongues.
1 Corinthians Chapter 14: 26 How is it then, brethren? when ye come together, every one of you hath a psalm, hath a doctrine, hath a tongue,
hath a revelation, hath an interpretation. Let all things be done unto edifying.
27 If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret.
28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.
....But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church....
not one Pentecostal church I have ever been to have ever followed this in scripture.
tongues is the least important gift. no interpreter = keep silent.