Isaiah 45:7 How do I explain to others why the KJV uses the word "evil" when other Bibles use different words? If you say its a bad translation then that goes against the KJV being flawless, but if you say this word is more accurate than the others then you make God out to look like a bad guy instead of loving?
Hello T-rex. This verse, as all other portions of Scripture, are translated given which manuscript texts are used, the quality of the translators & their work, and the era in which the work was done (i.e. how original words were understood in the language of the day). It probably needs to be stated, that Isaiah 45:7 reference to "evil", is not a direct reference to the sin in the heart, rather to the effects of sin as we live in a fallen state & in a fallen world. The Hebrew word given for 'evil' is 'ra', which is variously interpreted as, 'evil, bad, wicked, harmful, unpleasant', which then gives rise to other Bible translations using words such as, 'disaster, calamity, sorrow, etc'. So when we understand that 'evil' here is not a reference to God creating sin or desiring mankind to be sinners & living under that state & always under condemnation, rather that sin & its effects upon His creation must be the result when mankind chooses to disobey God & live a life of estrangement from Him, desiring to fulfil their lusts.
So, when we re-look at Isaiah 45:7, we see that God has directed Isaiah to record that 'He (God) forms (or creates: another Hebrew word used for 'create') the light; and He (God) also creates darkness'. If He creates light (as we are told in Genesis 1:3-5), and He "divides the light from the darkness", then we understand that darkness was the default situation & God chose to shine light into that darkness to dispel it. If He takes away that light, we return back to darkness.
Likewise, since the fall in Eden, sin has become the default over mankind's condition, indeed affecting all of creation. We became enemies of God, yet the God of Love & Mercy has prevailed to bring about "peace through the blood of the cross" ( Colossians 1:20) & even before that, to instil peace by His Mercy & right living for Israel. But if that peace is taken away, in performance of His Will, what is left? Evil is created: sin's default - no peace with God or man.
Uh Oh! Now I have to go to the original text just to find out that the Greek word used can be translated into English as either evil, bad, wicked, malicious, or slothful. So, whether Matthew used evil in one place and wicked in the next, both are correct.
So, if you're trying to explain to someone why one English translation says one thing, and another translation says something different, the only way to come to an agreement with someone is by together going to the source, the original text. We have to keep in mind that when the bible was completed, there were no English translations.
It's not a matter of trying to prove whose translation is correct or as you put it "flawless." It is my belief that no English translation is flawless, nor should any English translation be used as the source in determining the accuracy of all other translations. We have to take whatever English translation we are using and put it to the test. We have to go to the source. What does the original text say? Does my translation line up with the original text?
Not all bibles use the same words but if a translation uses a different word than what we have in the KJB, that does not necessarily mean that the other translation is incorrect.
Taking Isaiah 45:7 as an example (as you have provided), we have to consider the original language used. We know that the OT was mostly written in Hebrew with very little Aramaic.
The Hebrew word used in Isaiah 45:7 is Ra' (pronounced rah) which can be translated into English as Evil, bad, wicked, harmful, or unpleasant. If you look up the Hebrew word Ra' in a Strongs Concordance, it lists evil, distress, misery, injury, calamity as definitions. In some English translations, you will see the word calamity used instead of evil.
So, if an English translation uses one of these words instead of the word evil, they would be correct. For instance, if someone is using the English Standard Version (ESV) Bible, and in Matthew 16:4, their translation says evil, but I'm using the KJB which says wicked, which translation would be correct? Some might say the KJB is correct because all other English translations are "evil" (pun intended).
If I say the King James is correct because I believe it is flawless, then what do I do with Matthew 12:39 (KJB) where Matthew is saying the same thing in Matthew 16:4 (KJB), except in one place he says a wicked and adulterous generation, and in another place, he says an evil an adulterous generation. Which one is correct, evil or wicked?
Perhaps it is true that God ordained evil to occur after creation in order to accomplish His perfect will and according to His wise counsel and for His pleasure unto His glory. This does not mean that God actively does evil, as He cannot do so because He would mar His perfect divine nature if He did any evil. God actually doing evil is actually impossible. But ordaining does not mean that He does it or approves of it. It just means that He willed for it to occur in order to extend His mercy and grace to save the elect.
To ordain also means that nothing happens in creation and history that God does not choose to occur. He may actively bring a disaster, such as the earth opening and swallowing up the grumbling men in the wilderness, or He may use secondary causes to bring about what He has ordained before creation. He allows creatures to choose to do evil and prevents creatures from doing evil even when they wish to do so. He also takes what is meant for evil and works it our for good for His elect., such as with Joseph. By ordaining all things to happen before creation shows His absolute right to do as He pleases and His almighty power to bring to fruition all that He has ordained without anything or anyone to prevent or frustrate His purpose.
To understand this better, I would suggest that you seek biblical explanations of this under the topic: God's Eternal Decree or under God Ordained All Things Before Creation.
The word is sufficient as well as the other translations. G-d creates evil, disasters, calamity when He removes Himself, much like during the diluvial. The day is coming, though, in that day ...."The Lord is one, and His name one" ( Zech 14) and the whole earth will be filled with His knowledge and glory (Is 6:3, 11:9, Hab 2:14).
just for clarity, distinction: evil, disasters, calamity occur when man separates himself from G-d (ie sin, transgressions), and when G-d separates himself from man (diluvial, departing the Temple). when and what needs spiritual discernment (ref Is 45:8)
Hallo, Good question T-rex God know all kind of "ghost"? He make all ones. So I trust God in all His word and hold all ppl who blame God away from me. Certainty if i can pick and choose whom I want to deal with. He have reely create everything, good and bad. If not, we will may not feel temptation or mayby not love. Or anything else for that matter. I think its wrong to pamper with ppl. All of us need to stand to hear the truth, saved or not. It is a reel thing live or die. King James have the right word. Becose it tell whom God is. God is a Person, not only that, He are Savior, redeemer and much much more.
In the last days it will come those who cant stand the truth. And we are in the last hour.
Help us dear Jesus Christ You Are. love you in Christ.
So, when we re-look at Isaiah 45:7, we see that God has directed Isaiah to record that 'He (God) forms (or creates: another Hebrew word used for 'create') the light; and He (God) also creates darkness'. If He creates light (as we are told in Genesis 1:3-5), and He "divides the light from the darkness", then we understand that darkness was the default situation & God chose to shine light into that darkness to dispel it. If He takes away that light, we return back to darkness.
Likewise, since the fall in Eden, sin has become the default over mankind's condition, indeed affecting all of creation. We became enemies of God, yet the God of Love & Mercy has prevailed to bring about "peace through the blood of the cross" ( Colossians 1:20) & even before that, to instil peace by His Mercy & right living for Israel. But if that peace is taken away, in performance of His Will, what is left? Evil is created: sin's default - no peace with God or man.
Uh Oh! Now I have to go to the original text just to find out that the Greek word used can be translated into English as either evil, bad, wicked, malicious, or slothful. So, whether Matthew used evil in one place and wicked in the next, both are correct.
So, if you're trying to explain to someone why one English translation says one thing, and another translation says something different, the only way to come to an agreement with someone is by together going to the source, the original text. We have to keep in mind that when the bible was completed, there were no English translations.
It's not a matter of trying to prove whose translation is correct or as you put it "flawless." It is my belief that no English translation is flawless, nor should any English translation be used as the source in determining the accuracy of all other translations. We have to take whatever English translation we are using and put it to the test. We have to go to the source. What does the original text say? Does my translation line up with the original text?
Hope this helps!
(Part 1):
Not all bibles use the same words but if a translation uses a different word than what we have in the KJB, that does not necessarily mean that the other translation is incorrect.
Taking Isaiah 45:7 as an example (as you have provided), we have to consider the original language used. We know that the OT was mostly written in Hebrew with very little Aramaic.
The Hebrew word used in Isaiah 45:7 is Ra' (pronounced rah) which can be translated into English as Evil, bad, wicked, harmful, or unpleasant. If you look up the Hebrew word Ra' in a Strongs Concordance, it lists evil, distress, misery, injury, calamity as definitions. In some English translations, you will see the word calamity used instead of evil.
So, if an English translation uses one of these words instead of the word evil, they would be correct. For instance, if someone is using the English Standard Version (ESV) Bible, and in Matthew 16:4, their translation says evil, but I'm using the KJB which says wicked, which translation would be correct? Some might say the KJB is correct because all other English translations are "evil" (pun intended).
If I say the King James is correct because I believe it is flawless, then what do I do with Matthew 12:39 (KJB) where Matthew is saying the same thing in Matthew 16:4 (KJB), except in one place he says a wicked and adulterous generation, and in another place, he says an evil an adulterous generation. Which one is correct, evil or wicked?
Perhaps it is true that God ordained evil to occur after creation in order to accomplish His perfect will and according to His wise counsel and for His pleasure unto His glory. This does not mean that God actively does evil, as He cannot do so because He would mar His perfect divine nature if He did any evil. God actually doing evil is actually impossible. But ordaining does not mean that He does it or approves of it. It just means that He willed for it to occur in order to extend His mercy and grace to save the elect.
To ordain also means that nothing happens in creation and history that God does not choose to occur. He may actively bring a disaster, such as the earth opening and swallowing up the grumbling men in the wilderness, or He may use secondary causes to bring about what He has ordained before creation. He allows creatures to choose to do evil and prevents creatures from doing evil even when they wish to do so. He also takes what is meant for evil and works it our for good for His elect., such as with Joseph. By ordaining all things to happen before creation shows His absolute right to do as He pleases and His almighty power to bring to fruition all that He has ordained without anything or anyone to prevent or frustrate His purpose.
To understand this better, I would suggest that you seek biblical explanations of this under the topic: God's Eternal Decree or under God Ordained All Things Before Creation.
In the last days it will come those who cant stand the truth. And we are in the last hour.
Help us dear Jesus Christ You Are. love you in Christ.
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