Bible Discussion Thread

Question mark 10:34 why does it say that Christ will rise again after the third day?

Mark 10:34 in the King James Version (KJV) reads...

"And they shall mock him, and shall scourge him, and shall spit upon him, and shall kill him: and the third day he shall rise again."

You asked: Why does it say Christ will rise "the third day" rather than "after the third day"?

Understanding "the third day" vs. "after three days"

This confusion comes from how time was reckoned in Jewish culture during the first century. Here's a breakdown:

1. "The third day" means inclusive counting

In Jewish reckoning, any part of a day was counted as a full day.

So:

Day 1: Friday (crucified)

Day 2: Saturday (in the tomb)

Day 3: Sunday (rose early in the morning)

Thus, Jesus rose on the third day, according to their cultural understanding.

2. "After three days" is also used in Scripture

Some verses say "after three days" (e.g., Mark 8:31). This isn't a contradiction but a colloquial flexibility in ancient Jewish and Greek phrasing. "After three days" can still mean "on the third day" in that culture.

Examples:

Matthew 16:21 - "...and be raised again the third day."

Mark 8:31 - "...after three days rise again."

Luke 24:7 - "...and the third day rise again."

All of these refer to the same resurrection timing, just using different expressions.

Summary:

The phrase "the third day" in Mark 10:34 follows Jewish inclusive counting, where Friday (crucifixion), Saturday (burial), and Sunday (resurrection) count as three days. It does not mean "after three full 24-hour days." Different gospel writers used both phrases ("after three days" and "on the third day") interchangeably without contradiction based on how time was culturally understood.

Blessing Friend.