It seems that there is wide misunderstanding of 1 Cor. 7: 36 - 37. Paul has been encouraging virgins (both men and women) to remain unmarried, if at all possible, to better attend upon the Lord. So then in verses 36 & 37, if you simply read the word "virgin" as "virginity," it removes all the confusion and makes better sense.
Paul uses the literary device of personification to help get his point across. But many take it literally as being a daughter or some other woman.
I think the problem I would have with changing the word virgin to virginity in 1 Corinthians 7:36-37 is that the Greek text does not support changing it. The Greek text specifically says virgin in both Verses 36 and 37. We simply cannot change the word from virgin to virginity in order for it to make better sense. I read it as virgin, and I don't see it as being confusing at all.
We see the word "virginity" in Luke 2:36 (among other places), and it's a different Greek word than what we see in 1 Corinthians. So, if it is supposed to say virginity instead of virgin in 1 Corinthians, the same word would have been used that was used in Luke. Also, if we were to change the word virgin to virginity in Verses 36 and 37, why wouldn't we also change virgin to virginity in Verse 34? Changing words in the bible causes confusion, not clear up confusion. There are words that can be changed, but only if the original text supports the change.
I don't think there is any confusion as to what Paul is saying. He is using the word virgin, not virginity. True, virginity can apply to both male and female, but the Greek text uses the word virgin (PARTHENON) which is a feminine noun. This may be why many (including myself) see this as Paul speaking of an unmarried (virgin) daughter.
Something else to take into consideration is what Strong's Concordance gives us on the word virgin (PARTHENON): Of unknown origin; a maiden; by implication, an unmarried daughter -- virgin.
Another word that's used for virgin, which is found in 1 Corinthians 7:34, is PARTHENOS, which is defined as: properly, a virgin; a woman who has never had sexual relations; a female (virgin), beyond puberty but not yet married.
Again, this is why many see this as Paul referring to a virgin daughter. I am interested in hearing how you justify changing the word virgin to virginity when the Greek text does not support the change, and I do thank you ahead of time if you choose to reply.
Paul uses the literary device of personification to help get his point across. But many take it literally as being a daughter or some other woman.
I think the problem I would have with changing the word virgin to virginity in 1 Corinthians 7:36-37 is that the Greek text does not support changing it. The Greek text specifically says virgin in both Verses 36 and 37. We simply cannot change the word from virgin to virginity in order for it to make better sense. I read it as virgin, and I don't see it as being confusing at all.
We see the word "virginity" in Luke 2:36 (among other places), and it's a different Greek word than what we see in 1 Corinthians. So, if it is supposed to say virginity instead of virgin in 1 Corinthians, the same word would have been used that was used in Luke. Also, if we were to change the word virgin to virginity in Verses 36 and 37, why wouldn't we also change virgin to virginity in Verse 34? Changing words in the bible causes confusion, not clear up confusion. There are words that can be changed, but only if the original text supports the change.
I don't think there is any confusion as to what Paul is saying. He is using the word virgin, not virginity. True, virginity can apply to both male and female, but the Greek text uses the word virgin (PARTHENON) which is a feminine noun. This may be why many (including myself) see this as Paul speaking of an unmarried (virgin) daughter.
Something else to take into consideration is what Strong's Concordance gives us on the word virgin (PARTHENON): Of unknown origin; a maiden; by implication, an unmarried daughter -- virgin.
Another word that's used for virgin, which is found in 1 Corinthians 7:34, is PARTHENOS, which is defined as: properly, a virgin; a woman who has never had sexual relations; a female (virgin), beyond puberty but not yet married.
Again, this is why many see this as Paul referring to a virgin daughter. I am interested in hearing how you justify changing the word virgin to virginity when the Greek text does not support the change, and I do thank you ahead of time if you choose to reply.
Blessings!
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