Hi ValleyLil111. That's a very good question. And you might remember that Jesus also referred to this Psalm when questioning the Pharisees (the religious leaders) about it; and you'll find it in Matthew 22:41-46.
So Jesus' question to them was: 'Who is the Christ (the Messiah), whose Son is He'? They obviously knew that when the expected Messiah would come, He would be born into the world in a Jewish family and would be their Savior (leading them to freedom from their enemies and rule over them righteously). But as we know, Jesus came first to free them from bondage to their greater enemy, the Devil, who kept them blind, ignorant, in sin, and estranged from the God Whom they worshiped. But even in their blindness to their sin and Who Jesus really was, they did answer Him correctly to a point: that the Christ would come from the loins of King David.
Taking them from this word of confession that the Messiah would be the son of David, Jesus then asks them another question (similar to your question): 'If the Messiah is David's son (i.e. in the lineage of David), how then could David call Him, Lord?' And here Jesus took them back to the Psalm they knew well: Psalm 110. If King David, speaking by God's Spirit calls his son 'Lord', how can he then be his son as well? He can only be one or the other: either a biological son or the Lord from Heaven, not both. Or could it be?
So Matthew 22:46 tells us that no one could give Jesus the answer to that question. Because if they were astute, yet humble enough, reason would tell them that the Son of David Whom they expected as their Messiah was also the Lord from Heaven ( John 3:13). Yes, the Divine Birth was shown to them through this Psalm: God came in the flesh through the lineage of King David, and He was standing before them - as the Son of Man and the Son of God. So King David could well say, "The LORD (God) said unto my Lord (Jesus, my Messiah)..". David could see Him in the distance but the Jews were blinded.
So Jesus' question to them was: 'Who is the Christ (the Messiah), whose Son is He'? They obviously knew that when the expected Messiah would come, He would be born into the world in a Jewish family and would be their Savior (leading them to freedom from their enemies and rule over them righteously). But as we know, Jesus came first to free them from bondage to their greater enemy, the Devil, who kept them blind, ignorant, in sin, and estranged from the God Whom they worshiped. But even in their blindness to their sin and Who Jesus really was, they did answer Him correctly to a point: that the Christ would come from the loins of King David.
Taking them from this word of confession that the Messiah would be the son of David, Jesus then asks them another question (similar to your question): 'If the Messiah is David's son (i.e. in the lineage of David), how then could David call Him, Lord?' And here Jesus took them back to the Psalm they knew well: Psalm 110. If King David, speaking by God's Spirit calls his son 'Lord', how can he then be his son as well? He can only be one or the other: either a biological son or the Lord from Heaven, not both. Or could it be?
So Matthew 22:46 tells us that no one could give Jesus the answer to that question. Because if they were astute, yet humble enough, reason would tell them that the Son of David Whom they expected as their Messiah was also the Lord from Heaven ( John 3:13). Yes, the Divine Birth was shown to them through this Psalm: God came in the flesh through the lineage of King David, and He was standing before them - as the Son of Man and the Son of God. So King David could well say, "The LORD (God) said unto my Lord (Jesus, my Messiah)..". David could see Him in the distance but the Jews were blinded.
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