Leviticus 12:5 - But if she bear a maid child, then she shall be unclean two weeks, as in her separation: and she shall continue in the blood of her purifying threescore and six days. -- Why is the woman MORE UNCLEAN if she bears a GIRL CHILD?
Hello SKD. I agree that is a little difficult to understand since further details are not given us. Though, when reading the passage from verse 1, it appears that the circumcision of the male child may play an important part in this matter.
As you probably noted, the period of the woman's uncleanness and then the period of her purification is twice the days of the male child. The only thing (as seen in the passage) that causes this variance, is that of the circumcision of the male baby. Therefore, it could well be that if there was never a command from God about the need for circumcision, then both male and female births would require an equal amount of time for the woman's uncleanness and purification. However, since the male child was circumcised eight days after birth, that event might have affected the time stipulation for those requirements upon her. Just my thoughts on this, though without scriptural warrant.
As you probably noted, the period of the woman's uncleanness and then the period of her purification is twice the days of the male child. The only thing (as seen in the passage) that causes this variance, is that of the circumcision of the male baby. Therefore, it could well be that if there was never a command from God about the need for circumcision, then both male and female births would require an equal amount of time for the woman's uncleanness and purification. However, since the male child was circumcised eight days after birth, that event might have affected the time stipulation for those requirements upon her. Just my thoughts on this, though without scriptural warrant.
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