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That is a great question and important topic that you are inquiring about, "He chose to have His Son born of a human woman who by her fleshly nature is sinfull ,do you think there might have been a reason for this choice ?" And you also mentioned the seed of the woman which ties to this,
If I'm understanding the question as presented I think the study we are looking for is a study in
( KINSMAN REDEEMER).
Jesus was born of a woman to become our kinsman redeemer.
Galatians 4:4-5. But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law, To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.
Hebrews 2:9-11.
But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.
For it became him, for whom are all things, and by whom are all things, in bringing many sons unto glory, to make the captain of their salvation perfect through sufferings.
For both he that sanctifieth and they who are sanctified are all of one: for which cause he is not ashamed to call them brethren,
Roman 8:3.
For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son " IN THE ''''LIKENESS"'' of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
Revelation 5:2-5.
And I saw a strong angel proclaiming with a loud voice, Who is worthy to open the book, and to loose the seals thereof?
And no man in heaven, nor in earth, neither under the earth, was able to open the book, neither to look thereon.
And I wept much, because no man was found worthy to open and to read the book, neither to look thereon.
And one of the elders saith unto me, Weep not: behold, the Lion of the tribe of Juda, the Root of David, hath prevailed to open the book, and to loose the seven seals thereof.
Romans 8:3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
I said that Jesus was in the same flesh as we because if He was not He would not have been affected in the same way we are. He had to be tempted the same as we are, if not He would have not fulfilled the prophets and the law. He was as much flesh as me or you but he lived on this earth sinless and a perfect life fulfilling his Father's will for us. That is what's so amazing, He left the glory He had in heaven to do that for us.
I hope that makes sense, Ron
You say that it's up to you to choose, by the free will he has given you; is it really your choice or His choice.
Scripture says that ALL is HIS WORKS. Do you believe this.
John 15:16 You have not chosen me; but I have chosen you.
1 Corinthians 4:7 For who maketh thee to differ from another? And what hast thou that thou DID NOT RECEIVE? Now if thou didst receive it, why doest thou glory, as if thou hast not received it.
1 Peter 1:21 Who (you) by him (Holy Spirit, Christ in you) do believe in God, that raised him up from the dead, and gave him glory, that YOUR FAITH (the FAITH OF CHRIST) and hope might be in God.
Galatians 2:16 KNOWING that a man is not justified by the works of the law (the works of man's hands), but by THE FAITH OF JESUS CHRIST, even we have believed (BY HIM) in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by THE FAITH OF JESUS CHRIST, and not by the works of the law (the works of man's hands): for by the works of the law (the works of man's hands) shall no flesh be justified.
Philippians 1:9 For unto you it is GIVEN in the behalf of Christ, not only to BELIEVE on him; but also to suffer for his sake.
Philippians 2:13 For it is GOD THAT WORKETH IN YOU both to WILL and do of his good pleasure.
Ephesians 1:11 In whom (in Christ) also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestinated according to THE PURPOSE OF HIM who WORKETH ALL THINGS after the council of HIS WILL:
(vs 12) That we should be to the praise of his glory, who (by HIM) first trusted in Christ.
He is not calling everyone right now; only those that have been chosen to rule and judge the nations with him.
Psalms 2:10 Be wise now therefore, O ye kings, ye judges of the earth.
Isaiah 1:26 I will restore thy judges as at the first......
Obadiah 21 And saviours shall come upon mount Zion to JUDGE the mount of Esau (sold their birthright for things of the flesh); and the kingdom shall be the LORD'S.
Thanks alot for your reply to the question that I had. I was in a discusion with a friend of mine, if we are in
pre-tribulation or in tribulation. I to think that this covid hoax could very well be the begining.
It's like if you and I had to go through an obstacle course and I was able to go to the finish line without going through the course, how could I say I finished perfectly. Satan would be in front of God calling foul it doesn't count.
James 1:13 Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man:
Jesus in the flesh was tempted his entire fleshly life on earth even 40 days and 40 nights from Satan.
I said Jesus willfully died for us, if His body had not died and placed in the tomb and God resurrected Him on the third day we have no hope.
I do not remember saying anything about soul/spirit or an afterlife that was not in this discussion.
God bless you, Ron
"And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God" Luke 1:35
"And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us" John 1:14
"I am the bread of life.. This is the bread which cometh down from heaven, that a man may eat thereof, and not die.."
I am the bread which came down from Heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live forever: and the bread that I give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world" John 6:48-51
"He can not deny himself" 2 Timothy 2:13
Carleton
"If Jesus did not have the sinful flesh that came from the first Adam and Jesus was incapable of sin what did He fulfill?"
I don't believe the above assumption is true. The Bible clearly says Jesus was without sin (perfect), so why even flirt with the idea that He wasn't? Where does that idea even come from?
Jesus didn't come to die for His own sins, but for yours, for mine, for all human beings past, present and future. Why assume it has anything to do with Jesus' doing something wrong? It wasn't about Him atoning for His sin, but yours! That's what makes it extra special and loving- He loved you that much to give you that gift that frankly He had no business doing.
The other assumptions I noticed was this, which I also don't believe is true:
"God cannot be tempted, Jesus was, God cannot die, Jesus willfully did for us."
First, what do you mean by God cannot be tempted- do you mean God won't give into temptation or is impossible for a tempter like satan to tempt Him? Human beings are tempted by satan as a normal part of being human- so of course Jesus was tempted. It's possible you got this idea from: James 1:13, but it says God cannot be tempted with evil. It doesn't say that if God becomes a man that satan can't attempt to tempt him. This is likely at the core of this misunderstanding. Of course the Bible says clearly that Jesus is God in John 1:1 and many other verses.
Second, you wrote: "God cannot die, Jesus willfully did for us"
I agree with the first part that God can't die. But then you wrote that Jesus died for us. Yes, as a human being, not as God. His spirit didn't die. So, this sounds like it's conflating 2 different things and assuming that Jesus doesn't have a soul or spirit or that there's no afterlife? Since all human beings have a soul/spirit and an afterlife, and since God the Father is a spirit, of course God the Son has this too which didn't die. God bless.
So, when he said "nor abusers of themselves with mankind", I would think that means those (humans) who hurt themselves, will not go to heaven.
However, the Lord says " So do not fear, for I am with you; do not be dismayed, for I am your God. I will strengthen you and help you; I will uphold you with my righteous right hand" ( Isaiah 41:10).
When you read God's words He is always speaking to you.
Romans.8:3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
We seeing Jesus the same as we having the same feelings and the same temptations as we do, but He did not sin. This shows us He is worthy to follow and be our high priest and King.
Hebrews 4:15 For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.
Sinful flesh does not cause the blemishes it is the sin that one does. Jesus' sinless perfect life was the perfect sacrifice. God cannot be tempted, Jesus was, God cannot die, Jesus willfully did for us. God sent Jesus and then the Holy Spirit in the name of Jesus for any that will believe and follow Him.
Love your posts very helpful, keep up Gods work, Ron
Sound Doctrine is that which Scripture describes as:
+ "the Doctrine of The LORD" (Ac. 13:12);
+ "that form of Doctrine which was delivered you (the Church in Rome)" ( Rom. 6:17);
+ "the words of Faith and of good Doctrine, whereunto thou (Timothy) hast attained"
( 1Tim. 4:6);
+ "the Doctrine which is according to GODliness" ( 1Tim. 3:6);
+ "my (Paul's, according to that he DIVINELY received; e.g. 2Cor. 12:2-4) Doctrine" ( 2Tim. 3:10);
+ "the Doctrine of GOD our SAVIOR" ( Tit. 2:10);
+ "the principles of the Doctrine of CHRIST"
( Heb. 6:1; 2Jn. v.9); and
+ "the Doctrine of baptisms, and of laying on of hands, and of resurrection of the dead, and of eternal judgment" ( Heb. 6:2).
The same interpretation also applies to Paul's expression, "good Doctrine" ( 1Tim. 4:6; see the footnote there).
Paul used the expression "sound Doctrine" four times, and only in his pastoral epistles to Timothy and Titus (see 1Tim. 1:10; 2Tim. 4:3; Tit. 1:9; 2:1) to distinguish "that [which] is contrary to sound doctrine" ( 1Tim. 1:10) from true Doctrine such as:
+ the spurious doctrines of which CHRIST described as "the doctrine of the Pharisees and of the Sadducees" ( Mt. 16:12), which included the doctrine "of the circumcision" (v.10);
+ "every wind of doctrine, by the sleight of men, and cunning craftiness, whereby they lie in wait to deceive" ( Eph. 4:14);
+ "philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after CHRIST" ( Col. 2:8);
+ "the doctrine of Balaam" which blended sexual immorality into the True Religion ( Rev. 2:14); and
+ "the doctrine of the Nicolaitans" which gave unauthorized usurping power to spiritual leaders with unholy agendas ( Rev. 2:15).
It was within the holy of holies?
Jesus needed to live a normal human existence, identifying in every way with His people, with their sufferings, their joys, hopes, doubts, sicknesses, etc. And He could only do this if He came as a Babe, growing up as a young man & fulfilling the Will of God in life & death. ( Hebrews 2:16-18). And even though the people saw Him only as the son of Joseph & Mary ( Matthew 13:55,56), they should have known the Scriptures that spoke of His coming ( Isaiah 7:14; Daniel 9:24-26; Isaiah chaps 52 & 53; Zechariah 9:9, 12:10; & many others).
To your other questions: "what was Christ's victory over?" Ultimately, He was victorious over death & hell; by implication: over sin's penalty & over Satan's power to all who believed. 2 Timothy 1:10; 1 Corinthians 15:25,26 & Revelation 20:14.
And "how did He achieve this victory?" Only by the Cross. What seemed to the world & to Satan as the final death blow to Jesus to be rid of Him, in fact became the very means of salvation to all who would believe on Him. Jesus' resurrection was God's glorious proclamation of His acceptance that sin's price was now fully paid & that all who put their trust in Him would be cleansed by Jesus' Blood, justified, accepted & glorified ( Romans 8:30).
Hi Sacha, I believe your first question had to do with "the reason for God to have His Son born of a sinful human, when He could have brought Him into the World in another way". So I did answer your question, though probably not in the way you expected; I specifically wanted to show that the "sinful flesh" of Mary wasn't an issue because Mary didn't contribute to His Birth, which meant that Jesus was perfect in every way: without a sin nature & without sin. He was born in total purity just as the first Adam was created in purity, but Jesus did not sin as Adam did. And this opposes your understanding that Jesus was born with sinful flesh (you wrote this in another comment).
So depending on how you understood/accepted/rejected my comment, I could then elaborate further. So I'll continue. Your question: "why couldn't Jesus come to Earth in another way?" Ultimately, God has the answer to this though we can offer our thoughts:
Jesus was sent primarily to God's chosen people, Israel, for their blessing, benefit & salvation. God had planned this in eternity that through His chosen seed (Seth) & succeeding generations of Noah, Shem, Abraham, Jacob, Judah, David, etc., that the Messiah would come.
If God placed His Messiah on Earth from nothing (i.e. just zapped Him onto Israeli soil) how would Israel respond to His appearance. Knowing that in Eastern cultures a person's lineage is vitally important for many reasons, someone who came & said that He had no descendants but just came from Heaven, would have been totally unacceptable. As it was, most of the people rejected Jesus in His day, but not to have descendants one could hardly imagine how they would have viewed Him & would have cast Him away as a mad man.
Let's analyze the first quote, first. Do is an action word and certainly not passive. It requires us "to do" something. But what? The will of My Father. What then, is the will of God? The will of God is not an abstract idea that is so complex we can't know what to do. Rather, the will of God is made known to us by His Spirit, the Holy Ghost, and relayed to us via Jesus through the Bible. So what does Jesus say we must do to obtain salvation? Jesus is asked what must one do to obtain eternal life. He first responses with several commandments. The guy says, "I do those things." Then Jesus replies, "If thou wilt be perfect, go and sell that thou hast, and give to the poor, and thou shalt have treasure in heaven: and come and follow me." Sell what thou hast requires great faith that the Lord will provide. Give to the poor is charity, which scores mega-points in getting to heaven. There are several references to charity including: And now abideth faith, hope, charity, these three; but the greatest of these is charity; charity covers a multitude of sins, and
though I have all faith, so that I could remove mountains, and have not charity, I am nothing.
Giving with a pure heart (doing charity is the will of God) is an action item and is a major key to eternal life. This is a major stumbling block to many complacent Christians. Remember: faith (that God provides for us, charity (is love) and hope (Jesus comes soon).
In more detail:
Chapter 2 from verse 2 onwards is framed as The Lord's Answer to Habakkuk.
I have read various commentaries but am still confused by this passage. Does it refer to Babylon or Jerusalem? The commentaries all to seem to casually assumed that it is Babylon that is being referred to. The words of the Lord begin by referring to Babylon in the third person. Then from verse 7 the second person is used.
Given that the Lord has just explained in the previous chapter that he going to raise up Babylon as a weapon against Jerusalem - it would make sense that 2:7-17 is an explanation of why and that therefore it is Jeruasalem that is going to receive a drubbing. And indeed that turns out to be the case:
Habakkuk prophesied in the southern kingdom of Judah at some time around the battle of Carchemish (605 BC). This battle, which resulted in the total defeat of the Egyptian armies, marked the end of any serious resistance to the Babylonian advances in the region. It was not long before Judah found herself under threat from Babylon - a threat that would lead to an attack on Jerusalem and partial deportation of its inhabitants in 597 BC, and a final onslaught in 588, eventually leading to the fall of the city and deportation of most of its population in 586 BC. The text of the book itself does not allow us to date the prophecy with any great precision.
McGrath, Alister. NIV Bible Handbook . John Murray Press. Kindle Edition.
So why the assumption that the Lord was referring to Babylon in 2:7-17?