Bible Discussion Replies PAGE 214

Hello Ronald. 1/2

My opinion is that it is clear that Jesus ate the passover meal with His disciples (a day earlier as John writes in his gospel). This is what I get from the scrippure. Matthew 26:17-20, Mark 14:13-17, Luke 22:1-13.

The strange thing is that all three call it the first day of the unleaved bread. Luke 22:7, Mark 26:17, Matthew 26:17.

Lets read Matthew 26:17, "Now the first day of the feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the passover?" and Mark adds " And the first day of unleavened bread, when they killed the passover..."

We know that the lambs were killed on the 14th of Nissan and the next day, the 15th, was the first day of the feast of the unleaved bread. So it seems that the evangelists got it wrong? The most probable explanation that I have read is that during Jesus' time that feast became an 8 day feast instead of a seven day feast (as God commanded to Israelites in Egypt) and the 14th of Nissan was also included in the feast. The Jewish historian Flavius Josephus who wtote about the Jewish revolution against Romans in 70AD and who lived in Jerusalem during all those events writes in his history "Whence it is, that, in memory of the want we were then in, we keep a feast for EIGHT days; which is called the feast of Unleavened-bread", Antiquities of Jews, Book II, chapter 15, paragraph 1. So it seems that during Jesus' time the 14th of Nissan was included in the feast so it became an 8 day feast.

Another change that was made untill Jesus time is that although God commanded that the lambs must be killed after the sunset (so on the 15th of Nissan) as Deuteronomy 16:6 says, "But at the place which the LORD thy God shall choose to place his name in, there thou shalt sacrifice the passover at even, at the going down of the sun (15th of Nissan), at the season that thou camest forth out of Egypt." that was changed later on.

Thank you for your message , I'm in agreement because of Luke chapter 22 . It seems very clear to me from this chapter .

(Ephesians Part 5):

Ephesians 2:2 - Wherein in time past ye walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that now worketh in the children of disobedience:

Wherein in time past ye walked according to the course of this world, and secondly, according to the prince of the power of the air, which is Satan, the spirit that is now working, or energizing in the children of "the" disobedience:

There's a definite article with the word obedience. It is the specific disobedience, the disobedience to God. So, the prince and power of the air is energizing the children of disobedience, the same way it did us.

Ephesians 2:12 - That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:

That phrase "without God" in the Greek is ATHEOS where we get the word atheist from. ATHEOS is a compound Greek word, A=Without, and Theos=God. Every person that's not saved is an atheist. They're without God! A person can believe in God, they can go to church religiously, they can read the bible and look and act like everyone else in the church and still not be born of God's Spirit. That person is still considered an Atheist by the literal definition of the word.

Ephesians 2:14 - For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us;

For he is our peace, and it is interesting that the word peace here has the definite article. He is the peace. Peace is a person, not a feeling. The word itself, EIRENE, it means to be united. When you're at peace with somebody, you're at one with them.

(Ephesians Part 4):

Ephesians 1:10 - That in the dispensation of the fulness of times he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in him:

That in the dispensation, the explanation of this mystery, it gives us a little introduction. We won't get the mystery until Chapter 3 Verse 6. That in the dispensation of the fulness of times, God might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in him:

Right now, there is a sifting process going on. Christ has been set above all things. There are those who are lining up with Christ and submitting to Him, and there are others who are not. God's plan is to make one body, one group worldwide, past, present, and future, who will be called up to Christ. He's picking out for Himself a people for Himself.

The word dispensation means administration. You've probably heard that doctrine too, the doctrine of dispensation. OIKONOMIA is the Greek word for economy. That's the Greek word that's used here for this dispensation. So, he says the reason why God has made the mystery of His will known at this time is so that He can gather up, in the future of ministration, in the fullness of times, that is when everything's been fulfilled, that He might gather together in one, all things in Christ both in heaven and upon the earth.

Ephesians 1:17 - That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you the spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of him:

That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you, literally, a spirit of wisdom and revelation, literally, in the full knowledge of him:

(Ephesians Part 3):

Ephesians 1:7 - In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace;

In whom (that is in Christ), we have redemption through his blood, that is, the forgiveness of sins. So, redemption equals the forgiveness of sins. And this again is on the basis of according to the riches of his grace;

According to the wealth of God's grace, He provides this for us. The word redemption means to purchase out of the marketplace. They used to line up slaves down at the markets, and people would come down specifically to get a slave. They would buy one. They would purchase him out of the marketplace.

That's what redemption means. Not only do we have forgiveness of sins, but that forgiveness comes through His blood, and it was through His blood that He purchased us. Some believers either forget, or don't realize what Paul says in 1 Corinthians 6:19-20 that our bodies are the temple of the Holy Spirit who is in you, which you have from God, for you were bought with a price. He owns us. We've been purchased. That's why when we get to Verse 14, when the Holy Spirit seals us, He's waiting for the day that He comes for His possession. You see, He bought us. He owns us!

Ephesians 1:8 - Wherein he hath abounded toward us in all wisdom and prudence;

The word prudence means insight. He has given us the ability to see and understand spiritual things. It's interesting that the word prudence gives us understanding. Many believers have understanding, but wisdom is the application of that understanding.

In other words, I can train my mind to memorize the bible where if you just mention a word that is found in the bible, I would start quoting scriptures. But that's not necessarily wisdom. Wisdom is to be able to see and know and have the realization of that truth working in your life. It's not something we claim. It's something that's going on! He abounds towards us in wisdom and insight.

(Ephesians Part 2):

Ephesians 1:2 - Grace be to you, and peace, from God our Father, and from the Lord Jesus Christ.

The normal greeting by Paul, Grace be to you, and peace. Grace (CHARIS) is the greeting to the Greeks, peace (SHALOM) is the greeting to the Jews. But it's not the human greeting. He's saying grace and peace to you from God. May God's grace and God's peace be with you, from God our Father, and from the Lord Jesus Christ.

Before I continue, I would like to share with you that Ephesians 1:3-14 in the Greek text is all one sentence. And that's a very important piece of information in deciphering some of the things that we wrestle with from this text.

Ephesians 1:3 - Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ:

He says blessed be, and notice the word "be" is in italics. Usually when it is a present statement of fact, the writer will leave the verb out, indicating to us that the word "is" is meant in the text blessed is the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ.

The word blessed (EULOGEO) is where we get our English word eulogy from. And it literally means to speak well of someone. There are different meanings for the word blessed. For instance, in Matthew Chapter 5 in the Sermon on the Mount, all of those principles begin with the word blessed or bless-ed. That's the word MAKARIOS and it means to be filled with the fullness of something.

This word blessed used here means to speak well of. What he's saying is the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ is well spoken of. You'll notice that when we find ourselves in difficult times, we begin to question God, even to His face.

Biblical Greek Perspectives:

(Ephesians Part 1): Written to the church in Ephesus, the Roman capital of Asia.

Ephesians 1:1 - Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to the saints which are at Ephesus, and to the faithful in Christ Jesus:

Where it says, "by the will of God," it is literally through the will of God. It wasn't Paul's will or choice. It was by God's will that he be commissioned as an apostle.

The term "in Ephesus" is not found in the older manuscripts. It's blank, which causes us to conclude along with the style of the letter that this letter was a circulation letter which began in Ephesus. Everything in the book of Ephesians applies to every believer. So, it's not to a specific problem or issue in the city of Ephesus. This is a presentation and an establishment for every believer in Christ.

Please notice what he calls them. He says to the saints who are in Ephesus, and to the faithful in Christ Jesus. The words saints and faithful have one definite article for both words. The definite article is the word "the." So, saints and faithful describe the same people. The word saint means to be set apart. It is a position, not a performance. Once the Holy Spirit or Spirit of Christ comes into my life, I am set apart. And that's what the word saint means. And that whole process is called sanctification which is the verb form of the adjective saint.

Now the word faithful is an adjective that describes people who are consistently under the persuasion and influence of God's faith. Remember that faith is given to us by God. So, to the saints in Ephesus and to the faithful in Christ Jesus, not to Him, but in Him!

Hello Ronald,

Thank you for your message. I know this is a late response, but I have been away from here for a couple of days focusing on my Ephesian study. We do agree in part but not on everything. We agree that the bread and cup were symbolic of Jesus' body and blood, not His literal body and blood. What we differ on is whether or not the Last Supper was a Passover meal. This is one of those topics that has been debated for a long time. There are multiple views. From my studies, I hold that it was a Passover meal, but I am not claiming to be right or wrong on this one my brother.

Again, thank you for the things you have shared.

God Bless!!!

Hi Giannis,

Part 1

As we see in Matthew 26:17 and Mark 14:10, they say when they kill the Passover (lamb). Luke 22:7 also says when the Passover must be killed. This is on Passover day, the 14th when they killed the lambs. The 15th, the first day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread, is the Sabbath, not the 14th. The 14th is a preparation day, just like a Friday is for the weekly Saturday.

There are no restrictions on the 14th, Passover Day, the day Jesus was crucified, Joesph could buy or prepare whatever he wanted, before sunset that day. That is why we see they wanted to get Jesus in the tomb before sunset because the next day is the first day of Unleavened Bread is a holy convocation/Sabbath day

In Luke 22:15 Jesus is telling them He desired to eat this Passover, but in the next verse, He says He will not eat it anymore. He said this because He knew He would be crucified that same day, the 14th Passover Day. He would be dead and placed in the tomb before they ate the Passover the next night.

On the 14th, the Lord's Supper, the garden, the arrest, the high priest, Pilate, was crucified, and He died at 3 PM, about 3-4 hours before sunset. The Passover Lambs were killed at even, which would be the afternoon when the sun was going down. Jesus was placed in the tomb before sunset and after sunset, it was the 15th, the first day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread, this is when they ate the Passover meal.

Only the priests could catch the blood of the Passover lambs and put it on the altar and the Levites would clean the lambs. In the morning after the Last Supper, the priests took Jesus to Pilate they would not go in, John 18:28 they would be defiled and could not catch the blood of the lambs that would be killed later that day the same day Jesus was crucified, the 14th Passover day.

I hope this makes sense and not too repetitive.

See part 2

Giannis,

Part 2,

On the Lord's Supper, this is the only thing Jesus said to do in remembrance of Him. The elements used to represent Christ's body and blood are bread and wine. Some churches I have gone to use wine and some use grape juice this is debatable.

My understanding is the language used to describe the Lord's Supper in Scripture is symbolic. It is a memorial that keeps us in memory of what Jesus did for us the bread and wine symbolize our spiritual unity with Jesus' body and blood that He gave for us and by doing this we honor Jesus.

In Corinthians, these people were used to pagan feasts eating meat sacrificed to idols and getting drunk. I feel this is why Paul was so harsh because of the meaning of the Lord's table, and they cannot do both. Jesus died to save us from sin if we memorialize His death in the Lord's Supper, we must know the importance of doing away with sin in our lives.

I may be wrong, but I feel they did this as part of the gospel and feel the Lord's Supper is a time to be thankful and remember how Jesus suffered and sacrificed for us, a time for forgiveness, and a time for eagerly waiting for His return.

Thanks, sorry for the delay brother, I hope this is what you were looking for.

God bless,

RLW

Day 31 January 32, 2025 Pressing Forward Philippians 3:13-14 KJV West Angeles Church Consecration Calendar

I pray for Perseverance to run the race set before me to recieve the prize of the high calling of God and Holy Bible examples.

Philippians 3:13 KJV

My Interpetation REDAPPLETREATY4MEONLY:

" Reaching for obedience in Jesus Christ and to recieve the gift of the Holy Spirit/Holy Ghost. To have faith beyond measure. To walk by faith not by sight. 2 Corinthians 5:7 KJV, Romans 8:2 KJV .To do and say. My faith reading holy bible, trusting God has giving me opportunity to run the race set before " Words Spoken and Written by me of God."

Philippians 3:14 KJV

My Interpetation REDAPPLETREATY4MEONLY:

" To receive the prize having faith." Romans 8:2 KJV, Romans 9:16 KJV

Examples of prize reference Holy Bible

To receive Jesus Christ God the Father

5 senses- touch, sight, hearing, taste, smell.

Spiritual Blessings

Eternal Life

Happiness

Grace

Hands to reap, return to me

Unity with God

Santification

Justification

Word Spoken and Written by REDAPPLETREATY4MEONLY

Men who share the Mind of Christ don't live as individual persons of flesh; they are dead/crucified in ONE sacrificed, yet revived, body of fleshbelieving, by faith, that their spirits are Quickened to Eternal Life and hidden with Christ as ONE, New Man. They occupy this world to be daily reminders of God's Sacrifice for the sins of all flesh.

Amen to you for that . We have all wandered wild in our lives at some point . Never give up hope or faith in God .

Yes thank you Chris , it does .

Hello Fuji. That's a good question, because if we try to find reference to what the people said in John 12:34 in the Mosaic Law, even in the Pentateuch, then we will be disappointed. Sometimes, reference to the Law doesn't imply the Mosaic Law, but the Laws & all of the Word of God that is the body of the Old Testament. An example of this would be when Jesus answered the Jews in John 10:34, "Is it not written in your LAW, I said, Ye are gods?" It was never written in the Mosaic Law, but in Psalm 82:6, "I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High." And "gods" here is the other meaning of Elohim, and that is 'judges or rulers'. Another example is in John 15:25 (cf Psalm 35:19 & Psalm 69:4) or 1 Corinthians 14:21 (cf Isaiah 28:11,12).

So, the reference you gave won't be found in the Mosaic Law, but derived from the references elsewhere to Christ's eternal existence. And my Bible cross references the following to John 12:34: Psalm 110:4, Isaiah 9:7, and Daniel 7:13,14. Hope this helps a little.

Page 2.

I realize I have diverted from your point, but to show that both ordinances given to us are simple: the water baptism is done only once to immediately show one's identification with the One Who gave His Life for him. The Lord's Table is a continual reminder of the Cross & thankful to God for His Gift. Both the water & the bread/wine are the means used for our declaration, with no merit in those acts that are added to the participant.

The Corinthian Church gorged themselves on the food that was set aside for 'proclaiming the Lord's Death till He come'; and Paul refers to that in 1 Corinthians 11:20-22,33,34. In this act, they sinned against the Lord Who bought them & had done despite to the Sacrifice of such great value. So Paul warned them of their sin of mistreatment of the Lord's Table, & hence there was apparently sickness, even death, amongst them. I wouldn't dare point the finger at anyone suffering in the Church today, but it must have been abundantly clear to the apostle of the reason for their sufferings. Or, maybe today, with such a small portion given at the Lord's Table, no one could even imagine that that would satisfy hunger, rather, the act of participation in such a solemn act must be done in a manner befitting the serious but thankful child of God.

Just as the water in water baptism remains only water & doesn't convert into a medium of transmitting grace or blessing, so to the bread & wine at the Lord's Table receives no change, whether by faith or no faith, and as well as not transmitting anything to the partaker; but simply a vivid symbol of Christ's loving Act for them. OUTSIDE the Church, the water baptized believer would soon be judged by the world, likely resulting in persecution; however, INSIDE the Church, the believer sinfully partaking at the Lord's Table will be judged by Christ. GBU.

Page 1.

Brother Giannis. I know your comment was directed to bro. Ronald, but you did ask generally about the heavy penalty for such an unworthy participation if done only in a symbolic ceremony.

The way I understand 1 Corinthians 11:27-30 concerning the strong language Paul uses, with the judgements associated with partaking at the Lord's Table unworthily, is that the partaker is very careless (whether in unconfessed sin, unbelief, for appearance sake, irreverence (as spoken of here), etc.) at the Table. This bread & wine represents our Savior's agonizing death for our full salvation - how can anyone treat this act in such a way that brings shame to Christ's Sacrifice & greatly diminish the powerful memory that should be present in each partaker?

If I use the other ordinance that we have been given, viz. water baptism, we note that it isn't administered with a warning to participants; probably because only the genuine repenter would be prepared to declare publicly his turning to Jesus & to face the consequences. Unfortunately, both the ordinances we practise today in the Church are far removed from their original design. But if we take the way water baptism was performed, in all biblical examples given to us, we see that as soon as the Gospel was given, those who believed, repenting, discarding their old religion & sins, were baptized - no further examination - no penalty. Today however, we require those wanting baptism to attend baptismal classes & be observed for a changed life, before immersion into the water. Why? Because the one leading a lost soul to the Lord had disobeyed Christ's command to baptize, by neglecting to do so immediately. And so we put the act of obedience to the Lord in baptism, to the baptizee instead of the baptizer. Onto Page 2.

Hi Giannis,

Love to brother but it will be tomorrow.

God bless,

RLW

Can anyone shed some light on John chapter 12 verse 34 ? Where specifically in the law of Moses , does it state that the Christ / Messiah , shall live forever ? I could probably find it easy in the prophets but can't think where it would be in the books of Moses .

Ronald, 2/2

Obviously Joseph wouldn't be able to BUY fine line if the day of Jesus' crucifiction was on Passover. So the Passover was after it got dark on Friday which was Sabbath for the Jews.

So it seems that the story of the first trhee was a rough, not so accurate in details, story, so John corrected it. John writes a very different gospels than the rest, because he has nothing to add to their gospels, apart from what he wants to correct. Like Jesus didn't actually initially call Peter, John and James in that incident with the boats, but He called them after His baptism while they were John's disciples. John 1:29-40.

Now about what you have, and others, shared about the bread and wine being emblems, nobody seems to answer the question of how is it possible the participation in a symbolic ceremony carries the heaviest penalty of all, that is death, if taken unworthily. Think about it. Thanks brother, I like the way you write, although we differ in a number of beliefs. GBU

Hello Ronald, 1/2

May I share my thoughts on what you posted?

Mark 14:12, "And the first day of unleavened bread, when they killed the passover, his disciples said unto him, Where wilt thou that we go and prepare that thou mayest eat the passover?:

Matthew 26:17 agrres to that. Similarly Luke 22:7, "Then came the day of unleavened bread, when the passover must be killed.

And he sent Peter and John, saying, Go and prepare us the passover, that we may eat."

So the meaning of Luke 22:15 is that Jesus actually ate the passover meal with his disciples.

Now we know from Exodus 12:1-11, that the lambs were sacrificed in the evening of the 14th of Nisan and immediately after when it got dark and the 15th of Nisan started, according to how the Israelites were considering their days and nights, they ate the passover meal. Exodus 12:11, "And thus shall ye eat it; with your loins girded, your shoes on your feet, and your staff in your hand; and ye shall eat it in haste: it is the LORD'S passover."

But John disagrees to them. He places the Passover one day later. John 18:28, "Then led they (the Pharisses) Jesus from Caiaphas unto the hall of judgment: and it was early; and they themselves went not into the judgment hall, lest they should be defiled; but that they might eat the passover."

Having in mind that John wrote his gospel last of all, actually as the tradition says many decades after the first three evangelists, when he was in his 80's or 90's, and knew what they had written in their gospels, his story seems to be the right one. So it seems that Jesus ate the passover meal with His apostles one day earlier, probably because He knew that he would be in the tomb the day of the passover. If we see some details in the gospels of the first three, we get the same conclusion. Example: Mark 12:45, "And he BOUGHT fine linen, and took him down, and wrapped him in the linen, and laid him in a sepulchre which was hewn out of a rock, and rolled a stone unto the door of the sepulchre."

Hey S Spencer

Thanks brother, it would be interesting to hear. I know you are a busy man so whenever will be good. Have safe travel.

God bless,

RLW

OUCH Brother Ronald!!

I see the gap theory as an great possibility,

You are hurting my feelings! lol!

Just kidding on my feelings being hurt.

I see there may be some truths to an early earth and a Gap Theory but not pre Adam mankind.

I will explain why on a later date.

I've been on a very busy schedule this month.

Blessings.

Hi Chris,

Thanks, brother I have heard other preachers teach this so-called gap theory. They may be trying to match with science on dating the earth, but like you, there's nothing to back it up, that dog want hunt.

God bless,

RLW

Dear Austin,

I will pray for your continued recovery from surgery. If you are in so much pain, does the doctor know? Have you asked for pain meds that can be more effective?

I am sorry you are hurting so much. My prayer is that the surgery was successful and that you heal quickly and thoroughly.

Agreed brother Ronald; I too find this theory very hard to swallow, given the Scriptures we have before us. Yet, as in all things that are outside the revelations from Scripture, we can only make assumptions that are not clearly based on fact - and therefore can only be withheld in our hearts & not broadcasted so as to lead others astray.

And there is nothing in this theory of a pre-Adamic world that any Scripture gives support or leaning to. I did listen for a little while (for 10 mins) to Dake's talk on this subject ("Finis J Dake teaching on the pre-adamite world", presented by Dake Publishing, Inc), but had to turn aside when Dake spoke of God knowing how a man or devil would behave (in relation to sin), only after they sinned. Does this not deny the Omniscience of God? For this is why the Gospel of Salvation was already in God's great Plan, knowing that His creation would be tempted by Satan, fall into sin, & into total disrepair & judgement, save for the Mercy of God to offer the life-line of salvation. Indeed, Dake speaks very well, and as you wrote, with an eidetic memory (not knowing whether he always uses a script or not), so can be convincing with his clear & powerful speech; though in the greater part, I'm sure he is very biblical & thorough in his understanding of the Word & presentation of it. Blessings & thanks for offering those insights.

Hi Zamar2Zion,

I have watched a few of Dake's videos, and I find him to be a very intelligent man with an eidetic memory; he is also quite convincing. While there are Scriptures in the Old Testament that pertain to the end times, some prophecies have already been fulfilled. It can be easy to take a theory and find Bible verses that seem to support it.

One thing to note is that Dake teaches about a pre-Adamic world, which he places between Genesis 1 and Genesis 2. However, there are no Scriptures to back this claim.

As Jesus said to His disciples when they asked about the destruction of the temple, "Take heed that no man deceive you."

Thank you, and God bless, study with prayer and open ears to the Holy Spirit for your understanding

RLW

Hi Jesse,

I want to compare Passover to Jesus' Last Supper, as they are distinct events with significant meanings. Passover, as outlined in Exodus 12, involves the Israelites roasting whole lambs, and eating them with unleavened bread and bitter herbs. They were instructed to eat in haste, ready to leave Egypt, establishing a lasting ordinance for future generations.

Matzah, or unleavened bread, symbolizes the swift departure from Egypt, while bitter herbs represent the bitterness of slavery. Passover lambs were sacrificed on the 14th and eaten on the night of the 15th. This is why the disciples were at the temple sacrificing lambs instead of being present at the cross when Jesus died.

In Luke 22:15, it is made clear that the Last Supper, the Lord's Supper, was not a Passover meal. Jesus mentioned He would not eat the Passover with His disciples, and the Last Supper occurred on the 14th before the sacrificial lambs were killed. Jesus was crucified later that day; the Passover meal is eaten on the 15th Jesus was in the tomb when the Passover meal was eaten.

During the Last Supper, Jesus and His disciples were reclining, not standing with staffs. After their meal, Jesus instituted the new covenant, which commemorates His death for us, rather than being a Passover observance.

Jesus Christ fulfills the Passover, with every instruction pointing to Him and the New Covenant. Just as the Israelites were protected by the blood on their doorposts, we receive life through Jesus' blood. The lamb without blemish symbolizes His perfect, sinless life. The 14th of Nisan, the day of Jesus' crucifixion, is also when the Passover lambs were sacrificed, illustrating the completeness of His sacrifice.

The wine and bread symbolize His body and blood, sacrificed for us, as Jesus fulfills Passover, becoming the final sacrifice that leads us from death to eternal life.

I hope this makes sense, just my understanding. Thank you, brother, for continuing your work,

God bless,

RLW

Thanks again brother for another great explanation going through Galatians. Though I did let out a bellow of a laugh when I read of you wanting to put "From henceforth let no man trouble me" as your answering machine response to those calling you, disturbing your meditations, peace, & sanity (sorry for these my musings). Looking forward to Ephesians. GBU.

I'm reading cpt 3 of revulation. Can some one explain to me why the church of Philadelphia was the only church Christ seems to be easier on than the other 6 churches.

Was the church of Philadelphia the only church trying to do the right thing in Christ eyes.